My doc diagnosed me with bacterial prostatitis about a week and a half ago and gave me a 6-week course of Trimethoprim. Here's a brief history!
Diagnosed with gonorrhea 9 weeks ago (1 week after encounter). Given 250mg IM Ceftriaxone and 1000mg Zithromax. Started experiencing slight pain in my testicle 3 weeks after treatment. Had 3 separate urine amplification tests for gonorrhea/chlamydia and all were negative. Had a full STD panel at 7 weeks and everything was negative. Went to doc last week, and he said he found infection in my prostate fluid (my urine was clean). He did not do a culture of the bacteria and said it's most likely gonorrhea, without evaluating it further.
My question is, if my prostatits fluid was positive for gonorrhea, wouldn't three separate amplification tests detect the bacteria in my urine? Also, I've read that the treatment I had for the gonorrhea is essentially 99% effective against the bacteria. Is it possible that the gonorrhea didn't get treated, caused my prostatitis? Also, can I transmit something to my girlfriend if I have bacterial prostatitis? I'm going crazy here! I'd appreciate any feedback. Thank you.