Here’s a little background information on myself. As a young teen (13), I urinated and ejaculated at the same time the first time I masturbated (climaxed without erection). I contracted my PC muscles really hard to stop the flow of urine and the process was somewhat uncomfortable. Ever since then, I experienced sharp pains during ejaculation with every pelvic muscle contraction. I would only masturbate to near climax, fearing that it would be even more painful if I reached climax.
When I turned 18, I took Paxil for 5 years. During this time I would experience very weak initial feelings of a climax before ejaculating without pain. Everything seemed to be fine, I just couldn’t climax.
I have been off Paxil for 4months and sexual pleasure along with the ability to orgasm is slowly coming back. However, I have noticed that when the climax was more pleasurable, I would get very slight discomfort during the pelvic muscle contractions (especially the last ones) that occur while ejaculating. If it was not for my history, I would not even have taken this discomfort to be a concern so it may be that I’m a little paranoid.
Now my question is, is it possible that I permanently strained or torn my pelvic muscles when I was younger and that when experiencing the sexual dysfunction of Paxil, my pelvic muscle did not contract as hard and thus I did not experience pain.
Is it likely the pain could return when I regain full sexual pleasure since my pelvic muscles would be contracting harder?