Hi all! About 2 1/2 months ago, I had a sexual encounter with a man of unknown HIV or other STD status. The only thing that I did with him was perform oral sex on him. I have read that oral sex in general holds a low risk (1/10000) but my case is special. I was about to start my period so I had a canker sore or two in my mouth and one inflamed taste bud. I did everything I could to keep the pre-ejaculate away from my sores but the pre-ejaculate did touch the inflamed taste bud. Also, before I inserted his ***** into my mouth I would wipe the pre-*** off of the tip just to make sure that as little as possible got into my mouth. (He even called me out for doing it, I did it so much!) This man DID NOT ejaculate in my mouth, he only pre-ejaculated. Also, being a total scaredy cat, I asked him if he had any STD's, suprisingly, he was not offended at all (I thought he would be, since it's an awkward question to ask.) He told me that he was in fact CLEAN. (But I don't know if I should trust him or not) I was wondering if the canker sores/inflamed taste bud put my risk higher than 10000. I was also wondering if precum contained enough HIV to infect. I have read forums similar to this, but I wanted my individual situation addressed.
Additionally, I am going to the gynecologist to get a whole battery of tests run on the 21 so hopefully if they will test me, this nightmare will be over. Do I just ask for an HIV test? All I have done is stress about HIV since this incident and although you guys can't diagnose me, I just want some peace of mind. I would like to know my estimated risk. Please, helpful answers only! I know what I did was a huge mistake and I have regretted it ever since! Thanks again for all of your help! :)
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