My wife and I recently began fertility treatment after being unable to conceive for 8 months. I'm 33 and she's 34, so we didn't want to wait a full year to go see a specialist. After she has received some initial testing, I submitted a semen analysis last week. Unfortunately, the first, shall we say "part" of my sample did not make the collection cup. This led to a fairly low volume for testing.
Within 30 minutes, I took the sample to the doctor's office for testing. I was informed that I would be contacted before day's end with the results. Sure enough, I was called two hours later. Regrettably, there was some bad news. First, there was no sperm present. Second, the doctor told me there was a high level of bacteria in the sample. As you can imagine, I was pretty dismayed and dejected. He prescribed me 400 mg of oflaxacin, two times a day for 21 days. My wife was prescribed the same medication and dosage but only for 14 days.
My questions are as follows:
- How concerned should I be that no sperm was present after considering that part of my sample was not included in the test and there was the presence of bacteria?
- I've read a bit about long-term bacterial infections and how they can wreak havoc on a male's reproductive system. Should I have any concern at all that this bacteria may have caused irreversible, permanent damage that has led me to become inable to produce sperm? Is that likely? I'm sure it's possible, but I'm not sure of the probability.
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