The overall prevalence of color blindness, of all kinds, is listed as 13 per 1,000 or 1.3%. However, the prevalence of red/green color blindness in males is listed as 100 per 1,000 males or 10% of males. If you Include women, who don't get this kind of color blindness, in the population, the prevalence is still close to 50 per 1,000 people or 5%.
I'm a little confused about the overall prevalence listed as 1.3% since the other types of color blindness, which ad up to 2% or so, would add slightly to the above mentioned 5% prevalence. Since some people can have more than one type, it's not additive. Nevertheless, it would seem that the overall prevalence of all types must be greater than 5%, not 1.3%.
I'm sure I'm missing something! :)
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